Oki so trying to get my head around what you mean. Apologies for my slow learning curve.
So, at the moment on the AWS side:
- The AWS Customer Gateway has the public IP address of Site1 MX65.
- The AWS VPN connection has the tunnel settings and static routes for which subnets can communicate over the vpn (Site1 MX65 subnets and AWS subnets) (ACL's and security groups are also set but probably don't need to go into that).
So what you're saying is, on Meraki dashboard, Site-to-site-VPN>Organization-wide settings> Add one non-meraki-vpn peer with the AWS vpn connection tunnel settings, then add all the "private subnets" we want to connect to on the AWS side, then for "availability" add "all networks" so both site1 and site2 MX's can communicate with AWS.
If that's right, what I don't understand is, how would AWS communicate with the public IP of the MX at Site2 for data flow to work to that MX? Or is that just assumed because it's global and both MX's are considered part of the same network?