I may misunderstand the principle involves here so forgive me and set me straight if thats the case please.
But lets say I have my MX that serves up VLANs 3,4,5 on all its ports. Further down the line, I have a managed switch, a Netgear like this: https://www.netgear.com/business/wired/switches/smart/gs110tp/
My desire is to have Port 4 become an access port for VLAN 4.
On port 4, I have set all the other VLANs to not pass any traffic at all, tagged or untagged. And then the VLAN 4 traffic is untagged. If a MacBook Pro is on this port, I tell its 802.1q virtual interface feature to jump on VLAN 4 and it works great. But if i have a stupider device that cant be set with an 802.1q setting, is there a way to fool it? Should it be fooled now or will all untagged traffic simply fall to the default VLAN for the switch? That may be the issue Im hitting here.
Is there any other way to force a device onto a VLAN? Maybe thats what setting the default VLAN for a switch can do?
Networking geek since high school where I got half of a CCNA. Played Marathon II and Infinity over localtalk.
Made many a network over the years, now de facto admin of a retreat center with some of this fine Meraki hardware.
Fortune 100 Tech veteran/refugee.
